arnieg

Photo credit John Chaplin (John Somerville collection) Presenting 1948 British Championship to Vic Duggan at Wembley

I thought I would clear this up by reading the 1982 Rulebook - how foolish was I think that would resolve the matter!!! On reading the 1982 rulebook D1.3(a) makes it clear each team must declare a named seven, elsewhere (for example C4) there are rules restricting the use of loanees. As always the rulebook is less than 100% clear (I can't find a clear statement on what replacements are allowed when a reserve should voluntarily absent themselves, B7 is probably the relevant sub-section) so it feels like Pete Adams was operating at the fringes of what was legal.

I don't see how. He has not been absent for three years and not been absent due to injury. Compton on the other hand would be eligible for reassessment, having not ridden since 2017.

Is it the Polish Ocado guy who comes round with my home shopping?

He took it off Richard May in 1971 on 15 July

Presumably his average is assessed under 10.2.3 (a) [which does specify British speedway] However I am less than convinced the assessment for 2020 should be different to that arrived at for 2019 (which appeared to be a discount of a 10 year old average).

Yes it is, as you are seeking to rely on reduction to his average under: 10.2.3 b) riders who have been absent for more than 1 full season due to injury As a matter of fact he has ridden in New Zealand in the last 12 months and therefore has not been absent for a full 12 months. As 10.2.3 a) includes the phrase 'British speedway' while b) does not, it clearly demonstrates that this is relevant (not to mention a decade or so of precedent)

He's ridden more than Craig Cook in the last 17 months, so perhaps Cook should get the reduction instead!!

I think they got lucky. Due to the rocketing covid rates in Germany, vaccine hesitancy in Poland, the EU's multiple cock ups and the NHS success in running the UK vaccination programme being based in the UK suddenly looks more attractive.

I would suggest that in this case 'force majure' would apply to defeat any claim for breach of contract. https://uk.practicallaw.thomsonreuters.com/3-107-5776?transitionType=Default&contextData=(sc.Default)&firstPage=true

Can you elaborate, I don't understand the point you are trying to make. If the rider rides in England and (say) Sweden it is the rider who is breaking his contract with the Polish club If the rider choses to ride in Poland, but not England, then it is once again the rider who is in breach of contract - this time his UK contract. It would be a bit like Astra Zeneca signing two contracts, one with the EU and one with the UK govt. guaranteeing both first dibs on the vaccine they produce!

No - there is no contract between the the English and Polish clubs. The English club would have to sue the rider.

58.4 vs 58.1 in May of the same year.

Yes. But it was a) before, and b) slower - than Per's record.

Not as long as Per Jonsson at Reading. He broke it on 12 October 1987 and it still stood at the end of 2008.